Demonstration version in biology. GIA online tests in biology

Design and style 19.12.2023

Design and style

OPTION 1

2. Choose two correct answers out of five and write down the numbers under which they are indicated in the table. Examples of what scientific methods are illustrated by the plot of the painting by the Dutch artist J. Steen “Pulse”?

1) abstraction

2) modeling

3) experiment

4) measurement

5) observation

3. What function do nucleic acids perform in a cell?

1) are the keepers of hereditary information

2) carry out homeostasis

3) transfer hereditary information from the nucleus to the ribosome

4) participate in protein synthesis

5) are part of the cell membrane

6) perform a signaling function

4. What processes occur during prophase of the first meiotic division?

		formation of two nuclei
		divergence of homologous chromosomes
		metaphase plate formation
		bringing together homologous chromosomes
		exchange of regions of homologous chromosomes
		chromosome spiralization

5. Establish a correspondence between the trait and the cell organelle for which it is characteristic.

SIGN

ORGANOID

	presence of two membranes
	breakdown of organic substances to CO 2 and H 2 O
	presence of hydrolytic enzymes
	digestion of cell organelles
	energy storage in ATP
	formation of digestive vacuoles in protozoa

6. Determine the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring of a monohybrid crossing of two heterozygous organisms with incomplete dominance. Write down the answer as a sequence of numbers showing the ratio of the resulting phenotypes,starting with the dominant phenotype.

7. What patterns are characteristic of modification variability?

		Variability has an individual character.
		Variability serves as a reserve for microevolution.
		Signs in individuals develop within the normal range of reaction.
		Variability is formed when the number of chromosomes changes.
		The same genotype under different environmental conditions produces different phenotypes.
		Variation is not associated with changes in genes and chromosomes.

CHARACTERISTIC		TYPE OF VARIABILITY

9. Establish a correspondence between the structure of a flower and the method of pollination of such a flower: for each position given in the first column, select the corresponding position from the second column.

STRUCTURE OF A FLOWER

POLLINATION METHOD

	bright large corolla
	flowering and pollination occurs before leaves appear
	flowers contain nectaries
	pistil with a fluffy large stigma
	stamens on long filaments
	flowers have a smell

	by the wind
	insects

10. Mosses, unlike angiosperms,

		are phototrophs
		have no fabrics
		don't have a flower
		reproduce by spores
		have rhizoids
		form germ cells

12. Choose three correct answers out of six and write down the numbers under which they are indicated in the table.

Connective tissue of the human body

		represented by blood, lymph, cartilage
		lines the mucous membranes of the stomach and oral cavity
		can be liquid or solid
		has excitability and conductivity
		has a weakly defined intercellular substance
		performs a transport function

EXAMPLES

TYPES OF REFLEXES

	baby's sucking movements in response to the touch of his lips
	constriction of the pupil illuminated by the bright sun
	performing hygiene procedures before bed
	sneezing when dust enters the nasal cavity
	salivation due to the clinking of dishes when setting the table
	roller skating

	tie the tourniquet in a knot and tighten it with a wooden twist stick
	Place a sterile gauze bandage on the wound surface and bandage it
	attach a piece of paper to the tourniquet indicating the time of its application
	free your forearm from clothing
	place a soft cloth above the wound site and a rubber band on top of it

15. It is known that the potato or tuberous nightshade, a type of herbaceous plant, is the most important food, industrial and fodder crop.

Using this information, select statements from the list below that describe these characteristics of this organism.

Write down the numbers corresponding to the selected answer in the table.

Potato is a herbaceous plant with a bare ribbed stem and odd-pinnate leaves.
The homeland of potatoes is the coast of Chile and Peru.
Europeans did not know the potato until 1565, before the Spanish visited South America.
Until the end of the 18th century, potatoes were cultivated as an ornamental plant.
Starch, molasses and alcohol are obtained from potato tubers.
Potatoes are used for fattening farm animals.

16. Establish a correspondence between the example and the factor of anthropogenesis for which it is characteristic.

EXAMPLE		ANTHROPOGENESIS FACTOR

17 . In an agrocenosis, unlike a natural ecosystem,

		additional energy sources other than solar are used
		there is a closed cycle of substances
		inhabited by a small number of species of producers
		all functional groups are represented: producers, consumers, decomposers
		power circuits are short
		natural selection is at work

18. Match the example with the group of environmental factors it illustrates.

EXAMPLE

GROUP OF FACTORS

	biotic
	abiotic

19. Establish the sequence of evolutionary processes of formation of the main groups of animals that occurred on Earth, in chronological order. Write down the corresponding sequence of numbers in the table

20 . Insert into the text “Similarity of mushrooms with plants and animals” the missing terms from the proposed list, using numerical notations. Write down the numbers of the selected answers in the text, and then enter the resulting sequence of numbers (according to the text) in the table below.

SIMILARITY OF MUSHROOMS TO PLANTS AND ANIMALS

Mushrooms combine characteristics of both plants and animals. Like plants, mushrooms are immobile and constantly growing. On the outside, their cells, like plant cells, are covered with ___________ (A). Inside the cell they lack green ___________ (B). Fungi are similar to animals in that they do not store ___________(B) in their cells and they feed on ready-made organic substances. The cell wall of fungi includes ___________(G).

LIST OF TERMS:

1) plasma membrane 2) cell wall 3) plastids 4) Golgi complex

5) mitochondria 6) starch 7) glycogen 8) chitin

21. P Using the table “Nutritional value of some fish” and knowledge from the field of biology, choose the correct statements

1) Salmon contains the highest proportion of proteins compared to other fish.

2) Sprat contains the largest proportion of fats compared to other fish.

4) Vobla is the lowest calorie fish.

5) All of these fish are representatives of the Herring order.

Part 2

22. Why is it not recommended to store wet seeds in a granary? What's happening to them?

23. What are the formations on the roots of the plant shown? What type of relationships between organisms does the picture illustrate? Explain the significance of this relationship for both organisms.

24. Find three errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which errors were made and correct them.

1. Fungi and bacteria are classified as prokaryotes. 2. Among the fungi there is a wide variety: yeast, molds, cap mushrooms, etc. 3. A common feature of multicellular fungi is the formation of a vegetative body from thin branching filaments that form a mycelium. 4. A fungal cell has a cell wall consisting of chitin and membrane organelles. 5. Glycogen is a reserve nutrient. 6. Mushrooms have an autotrophic type of nutrition. 7. Fungal growth stops after the spores mature.

25. What functions does the nervous system perform in the human body? Give at least three functions. Explain your answer.

26. Flounder is a bottom-dwelling fish, adapted to life in the seas, blending into the background of the seabed. Name the type of coloration and explain its significance, as well as the relative nature of fitness.

27. The chromosome set of somatic potato cells is 48. Determine the chromosome set and the number of DNA molecules in cells during meiosis in prophase of meiosis I and metaphase of meiosis II. Explain all your results.

28. In homozygous sheep, the gray color gene causes the death of embryos. In the first crossbreeding of sheep with gray coat color and horns, some of the offspring turned out to have black coat and were hornless. In the second cross between sheep with gray coat color, horned (homozygous), the offspring with gray coat color, horned and with black coat color, horned, were obtained in a ratio of 2: 1. The genes are not linked. Make a diagram for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of parental individuals, genotypes and phenotypes of possible offspring in crosses. Explain the phenotypic cleavages of the offspring of two crosses.

OPTION 2

Consider the diagram. Write down the missing term in the diagram, indicated by a question mark.

Choose two correct answers out of five and write down the numbers under which they are indicated in the table. The ringing method is used for

1) determining the timing and routes of bird migration

2) studying the mechanisms of bird flight at different altitudes

3) determining the behavioral characteristics of poultry

4) assessing the damage caused to humans by birds

5) determining the life expectancy of birds

3. They have a diploid set of chromosomes

		epidermal cells of birch leaves
		cod intestine cells
		female gametes of flowering plants
		male cat gametes
		monkey nerve cells
		coli

4. Prokaryotic cells are different from eukaryotic cells

		presence of ribosomes
		lack of mitochondria
		lack of a formal core
		presence of a plasma membrane
		lack of organelles of movement
		presence of a circular DNA molecule

5. Establish a correspondence between the structure of the organelle and its appearance.

STRUCTURE

TYPE OF ORGANoid

	consists of two perpendicularly located cylinders
	consists of two subunits
	Formed by microtubules
	contains proteins that ensure chromosome movement
	contains proteins and nucleic acid

6. Determine the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring when crossing females and males with AaBb genotypes, taking into account that the genes are not linked to each other and complete dominance is observed. Write down the answer as a sequence of numbers showing the ratio of the resulting phenotypes,in descending order.

7. The reasons for combinative variability include

		random combination of gametes during fertilization
		changes in the structure of individual chromosomes
		recombination of genes as a result of crossing over
		change in the nucleotide composition of the ring chromosome
		loss of a triplet of nucleotides during replication
		combination of non-homologous chromosomes in meiosis

8. Establish a correspondence between the characteristic of variability and its type.

CHARACTERISTIC

TYPE OF VARIABILITY

	occurs in genetically identical individuals
	occurs when germ cells merge
	has a group character of changes in the characteristic
	determined by the limits of the reaction norm of the genotype
	corresponds to a change in the action of an environmental factor
	based on independent chromosome segregation during meiosis

BUILDING FEATURES

CLASS ARTHROPODA

	arachnids
	insects

Write down the selected numbers in the table under the corresponding letters.

10. Plants that do not have roots include

		cuckoo flax
		horsetail
		male shieldweed
		club moss
		sphagnum
		Laminaria

11 . Establish the sequence of arrangement of systematic groups of plants, starting with the largest taxon. Write down the corresponding sequence of numbers in the table.

12. The human heart muscle is characterized

		the presence of transverse striations
		abundance of intercellular substance
		spontaneous rhythmic contractions
		presence of spindle cells
		numerous connections between cells
		absence of nuclei in cells

15. It is known that the common mole is a soil mammal that feeds on animal food. Using this information, select three statements from the list below that describe these characteristics of this animal. Write down the numbers corresponding to the selected answers in the table.

1) The body length of animals is 18–26.5 cm, and their weight is 170–319 g.

2) Adult animals are quarrelsome with each other, attack relatives who come into their area and can bite them to death.

3) The offspring of moles are born blind, naked and helpless. At this time, the female feeds him with milk.

4) The nesting chamber is located at a depth of 1.5–2 m.

5) Along river valleys, the mole penetrates to the north to the middle taiga, and to the south to typical steppes.

6) The mole feeds on earthworms, and in smaller quantities eats slugs, insects and their larvae.

17. Choose three correct answers out of six and write down the numbers under which they are indicated in the table. In a mixed forest ecosystem, a symbiotic relationship is established between

Psilophytes

Multicellular algae

Angiosperms

Ferns

20. Insert into the text “Vital activity of a plant” the missing terms from the proposed list, using numerical notations. Write down the numbers of the selected answers in the text, and then enter the resulting sequence of numbers (according to the text) in the table below.

VITAL ACTIVITIES OF THE PLANT

The plant obtains water in the form of soil solution through the ___________ (A) root. The above-ground parts of the plant, mainly ___________ (B), on the contrary, through special cells - ___________ (C) evaporate a significant amount of water. In this case, water is used not only for evaporation, but also as a starting material for the formation of organic substances during the process ___________ (D).

LIST OF TERMS:

1) respiration 2) root cap 3) root hair 4) leaf

5) shoot 6) stem 7) stomata 8) photosynthesis

21. Using the table “Acidity of juices and secretions in the human digestive tract” and knowledge of the biology course, select the correct statements:

2) With heartburn, the pH of the esophagus drops sharply.

3) An empty (fasting) stomach has the most alkaline environment.

4) During a fast, there is a risk of developing a duodenal ulcer.

5) In the acidic environment of the stomach, carbohydrates are broken down better.

Part 2.

22. It is known that at high ambient temperatures the skin of the face turns red, and at low temperatures it turns pale. Explain why this happens.

23. Name the organism shown in the figure and the kingdom to which it belongs. What is indicated by numbers 1, 2? What is the role of these organisms in the ecosystem?

24. Find three errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, correct them.

1. G. Mendel is rightfully considered the founder of genetics. 2. He found that during a monohybrid crossing, the characteristics are split in a ratio of 3: 1. 3. During a dihybrid crossing, the characters are split in the second generation in a ratio of 1: 2: 1. 4. Such splitting occurs if the genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes. 5. T. Morgan established that if genes are located on the same chromosome, then traits are inherited exclusively together, that is, linked. 6. Such genes form a linkage group. 7. The number of linkage groups is equal to the diploid set of chromosomes.

25. What is the role of mitochondria in metabolism? Which tissue - muscle or connective tissue - contains more mitochondria? Explain why.

26. What is the negative impact of human activity on the flora of the biosphere? Give at least four examples and explain their impact.

27. The karyotype of one fish species is 56 chromosomes. Determine the number of chromosomes during spermatogenesis in the cells of the growth zone and in the cells of the maturation zone at the end of the first division. Explain what processes occur in these zones.

28. In humans, deafness is an autosomal, recessive trait; color blindness is a recessive trait linked to sex (Xd). A woman healthy according to these two characteristics married a man suffering from deafness and color blindness. They had a daughter with good hearing and color blindness and a son who was deaf and color blind. Make a diagram for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents, all possible genotypes and phenotypes of the children. Determine the probability of having children suffering from both anomalies. What gender will they be? Indicate their genotypes.

SPECIFICATION
control measuring materials
Unified State Exam 2017 in BIOLOGY

1. Purpose of KIM Unified State Exam

The Unified State Exam (hereinafter referred to as the Unified State Exam) is a form of objective assessment of the quality of training of persons who have mastered educational programs of secondary general education, using tasks of a standardized form (control measurement materials).

The Unified State Examination is conducted in accordance with the Federal Law of December 29, 2012 No. 273-FZ “On Education in the Russian Federation.”

Control measuring materials make it possible to establish the level of mastery by graduates of the Federal component of the state standard of secondary (complete) general education in biology, the basic and specialized level.

The results of the unified state exam in biology are recognized by educational organizations of secondary vocational education and educational organizations of higher education.
professional education as the results of entrance tests in biology.

2. Documents defining the content of the Unified State Exam KIM

3. Approaches to selecting content and developing the structure of the Unified State Exam KIM

The basis for the development of the Unified State Exam KIM is the invariant core of the content of biological education, which is reflected in the Federal component of the state standard of secondary (complete) general education, various sample programs and textbooks recommended by the Ministry of Education and Science of Russia for use in the implementation of state-accredited educational programs of secondary general education in biology.
KIM Unified State Exam tests graduates’ mastery of knowledge and skills in the main sections of the biology course: “Plants”, “Bacteria. Mushrooms. Lichens”, “Animals”, “Man and his health”, “General biology”. This allows the test to cover the main content of the course and ensure the content validity of the CMM. The content of the KIM Unified State Exam does not go beyond the scope of the high school biology course and does not depend on what program and what textbook is taught in a particular educational organization.

The examination work is dominated by tasks in the “General Biology” section, since it integrates and generalizes the factual knowledge acquired in basic school, and examines general biological patterns that manifest themselves at different levels of the organization of living nature. These include: cellular, chromosomal, evolutionary theories; laws of heredity and variability; ecological patterns of biosphere development.

Assignments that control the degree of mastery of knowledge and skills cover the most significant issues in the content of the biology course and test the graduates’ level of scientific worldview and biological competence.

4. Structure of KIM Unified State Exam

Each version of the CMM examination paper contains 28 tasks and consists of two parts that differ in form and level of complexity. Part 1 contains 21 tasks:

7 - multiple choice with or without a picture;
6 - to establish correspondence with or without a picture;
3 - to establish the sequence of systematic taxa, biological objects, processes, phenomena;
2 - to solve biological problems in cytology and genetics;
1 - to supplement the missing information in the diagram;
1 - to supplement the missing information in the table;
1 - to analyze information presented in graphical or tabular form.

The answer to the tasks of Part 1 is given by the corresponding entry in the form of a word (phrase), number or sequence of numbers written without spaces or separating characters.

Part 2 contains 7 tasks with detailed answers. In these tasks, the answer is formulated and written down by the examinee independently in detailed form. The tasks of this part of the work are aimed at identifying graduates with a high level of biological training.

In part 1, tasks 1-21 are grouped into content blocks presented in the codifier, which provides more accessible
perception of information. In part 2, tasks are grouped depending on the types of learning activities being tested and in accordance with thematic affiliation.

The 2019 state final certification in biology for graduates of the 9th grade of general education institutions is carried out to assess the level of general education training of graduates in this discipline. The tasks test knowledge of the following sections of biology:

The role of biology in the formation of the modern natural science picture of the world, in the practical activities of people.
The cellular structure of organisms as proof of their relationship, the unity of living nature.
Signs of organisms. Unicellular and multicellular organisms. Kingdom of Bacteria. Kingdom of Mushrooms.
Kingdom of Plants.
Animal Kingdom.
General plan of the structure and vital processes. Similarities between humans and animals and differences from them. Reproduction and development of the human body.
Neurohumoral regulation of vital processes of the body.
Support and movement.
Internal environment.
Transport of substances.
Nutrition. Breath.
Metabolism. Selection. Covers of the body.
Sense organs.
Psychology and human behavior.
Compliance with sanitary and hygienic standards and rules of a healthy lifestyle. Techniques for providing first aid.
The influence of environmental factors on organisms.
Ecosystem organization of living nature. Biosphere. The doctrine of the evolution of the organic world.

In this section you will find online tests that will help you prepare to take the OGE (GIA) in biology. We wish you success!

The standard OGE test (GIA-9) of the 2019 format in biology contains two parts. The first consists of 28 tasks with a short answer, the second - of 4 tasks with a detailed answer. In this regard, only the first part (i.e., the first 28 tasks) is presented in this test. According to the current exam structure, among these tasks, only 22 questions offer answer options. But for the convenience of passing tests, the site administration decided to offer answer options in all tasks. However, for tasks in which the compilers of real test and measurement materials (CMMs) do not provide answer options, the number of answer options has been significantly increased in order to bring our test as close as possible to what you will have to face at the end of the school year.

The standard OGE test (GIA-9) of the 2018 format in biology contains two parts. The first consists of 28 tasks with a short answer, the second - of 4 tasks with a detailed answer. In this regard, only the first part (i.e., the first 28 tasks) is presented in this test. According to the current exam structure, among these tasks, only 22 questions offer answer options. But for the convenience of passing tests, the site administration decided to offer answer options in all tasks. However, for tasks in which the compilers of real test and measurement materials (CMMs) do not provide answer options, the number of answer options has been significantly increased in order to bring our test as close as possible to what you will have to face at the end of the school year.

The standard OGE test (GIA-9) of the 2017 format in biology contains two parts. The first consists of 28 tasks with a short answer, the second - of 4 tasks with a detailed answer. In this regard, only the first part (i.e., the first 28 tasks) is presented in this test. According to the current exam structure, among these tasks, only 22 questions offer answer options. But for the convenience of passing tests, the site administration decided to offer answer options in all tasks. However, for tasks in which the compilers of real test and measurement materials (CMMs) do not provide answer options, the number of answer options has been significantly increased in order to bring our test as close as possible to what you will have to face at the end of the school year.

The standard OGE test (GIA-9) of the 2016 format in biology contains two parts. The first consists of 28 tasks with a short answer, the second - of 4 tasks with a detailed answer. In this regard, only the first part (i.e., the first 28 tasks) is presented in this test. According to the current exam structure, among these tasks, only 22 questions offer answer options. But for the convenience of passing tests, the site administration decided to offer answer options in all tasks. However, for tasks in which the compilers of real test and measurement materials (CMMs) do not provide answer options, the number of answer options has been significantly increased in order to bring our test as close as possible to what you will have to face at the end of the school year.

The standard OGE test (GIA-9) of the 2015 format in biology contains two parts. The first consists of 28 tasks with a short answer, the second - of 4 tasks with a detailed answer. In this regard, only the first part (i.e., the first 28 tasks) is presented in this test. According to the current exam structure, among these tasks, only 22 questions offer answer options. But for the convenience of passing tests, the site administration decided to offer answer options in all tasks. However, for tasks in which the compilers of real test and measurement materials (CMMs) do not provide answer options, the number of answer options has been significantly increased in order to bring our test as close as possible to what you will have to face at the end of the school year.

one correct option.

When completing tasks A1-A24, select only one correct option.

There are a lot of professions related to biology. And if a graduate decides to devote his future life to medicine, psychology, pedagogy, food industry technology, pharmacology or agriculture, then a biology exam at the end of secondary school is mandatory for him. What will it be like Unified State Exam in Biology 2017?

The state biology exam in 2017 will be different from the exams of previous years. Not many changes have been made, but they are significant.

A new, more optimized structure of the examination paper is proposed. The number of tasks has been reduced to 28, compared to 40 in 2016. The maximum number of primary points for the entire work has been reduced, now it is 59 points, instead of 60 last year. But the amount of time to complete the examination work has been increased to 210 minutes, instead of 180.

There will no longer be multiple choice questions in the exam. In this regard, the likelihood of guessing is reduced to a minimum. After all, before it was possible to use intuition, pass the threshold and score the minimum allowed number of points. Now intuition is not our help; we need knowledge. You will have to prepare carefully and start as early as possible. But there is also good news. The difficulty of the tasks has not changed, but the time to complete them has increased by 30 minutes.

The 2017 Unified State Examination in Biology contains 28 tasks and consists of two parts, each of which has its own level of difficulty and format.

First part of the exam

The first part consists of 21 short answer questions. Moreover, the answers will need to be written in the form of words or phrases, numbers or sequences of numbers, without spaces or separators.

The first part includes tasks of two difficulty levels: 10 - basic level and 11 - advanced.

This format is the first innovation and a good reason for taking the demo version of the Unified State Exam in Biology 2017.

The second innovation is in the content of tasks. The graduate will need:

analyze information in graphical or tabular form (1 task)
complete the missing information in the diagram and table (2 tasks)
establish the sequence of systematic taxa, biological objects, phenomena, processes (3 tasks)
solve biological problems in cytology and genetics (2 tasks)
complete multiple choice tasks (7 tasks) and matching tasks (6 tasks) with or without a picture

So, 21 tasks of a new type have significant differences and allow you to more accurately assess your knowledge of the material covered, and also require serious preparation.

Second part of the exam (increased difficulty)

The second part of the Unified State Exam in Biology 2017 is aimed at graduates with a high level of knowledge in the subject, or rather at identifying them. There will be no changes here. As in 2016, there will be 7 tasks, formed by types of educational activities and in accordance with the topics of the subject. Graduates write answers to them independently in detailed form. There are also no changes in difficulty level: 1 advanced task and 6 high level tasks.

In the second part, the graduate must independently explain and justify biological phenomena and processes, be able to analyze, systematize and integrate knowledge, and confirm theory with practice. And all this should be correctly formulated in a detailed answer.

How is it assessed?

The initial maximum number of points for the state exam in 2017 has changed, but not significantly.

For completing 10 tasks of a basic level of complexity, 17 points are given, for 12 tasks of an advanced level - 24 points, for 6 tasks of a high level - 18. In total - 59 points. for passing the biology exam will be 36 points.

What you need to know

The exam involves testing knowledge of the subject in full. And if something is missed, even for a good reason, this fact is not taken into account during the exam. Therefore, it is advisable for the future graduate to begin preparing for it as early as September in order to have time to fill in all the gaps.

Knowledge testing in biology will be carried out in the following sections:

Biology as a science. Methods of scientific knowledge
Cell as a biological system
Organism as a biological system
System and diversity of the biological world
The human body and its health
Evolution of living nature
Ecosystems and their inherent patterns

Use this list to test yourself and catch up on missed topics.

What you need to know

At the Unified State Examination in biology, it is also important to show your skills and abilities to use the acquired knowledge. The graduate must correctly use terminology and identify biological objects not only by description, but also by drawing. When explaining biological processes, those who use not only words, but also tables, graphs, and diagrams will have a significant advantage. Solve problems, draw conclusions and apply theoretical knowledge in practice, in everyday life.

Every year FIPI releases an updated demo version of the Unified State Exam in Biology. The graduate has the opportunity to calmly understand the instructions, assignments, rules of conduct, assessment criteria, and practically go through all stages of the exam. Of course, the demo version is not an exact copy of the Unified State Exam, but, nevertheless, it allows the student to feel calmer and more confident when everything happens for real.

In preparing for the Unified State Exam in biology, each graduate needs to take into account his or her personal, individual characteristics. Everyone knows their strengths and weaknesses, memory capabilities, and performance. Those who have not yet figured this out can turn to their parents and teachers for help. It’s worth talking to those who have already taken the Unified State Exam and getting additional information first-hand. In a word, all methods are good for preparation, the main thing is not to leave everything for May, not to hope that “maybe it will blow over,” but to start systematically studying now.

Biology is one of the subjects that a graduate chooses on his own at the Unified State Examination. And if he makes a choice in favor of biology, then he likes this science. Therefore, all worries and worries should be left at the door so as not to interfere. And take with you composure, confidence, remember everything and get the highest score.

Video news, demo versions

The biology exam is selective and only those who are confident in their knowledge will take it. The Unified State Exam in biology is considered a difficult subject, since it tests the knowledge accumulated over all years of study.

The Unified State Exam (USE) tasks in biology are of different types; solving them requires solid knowledge of the main topics of the school biology course. Based on this, teachers developed over 10 test tasks on each topic.

Topics that need to be studied when completing assignments, see from FIPI. Each task has its own algorithm of actions that will help in solving problems.

Changes in KIM Unified State Examination 2019 in biology:

The model of the task in line 2 has been changed. Instead of a multiple choice task worth 2 points, a task on working with a table worth 1 point has been included.
The maximum primary score decreased by 1 and amounted to 58 points.

Structure of Unified State Examination tasks in biology:

Part 1– these are tasks from 1 to 21 with a short answer; approximately 5 minutes are allotted for completion.

Advice: Read the wording of the questions carefully.

Part 2– these are tasks from 22 to 28 with a detailed answer; approximately 10-20 minutes are allotted for completion.

Advice: express your thoughts in a literary manner, answer the question in detail and comprehensively, define biological terms, even if this is not required in the assignments. The answer should have a plan, not write in continuous text, but highlight points.